Monthly Archives: October 2018

Teaching and researching Finance

Teaching and researching Finance

23 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1123

Assalam-O-Alaikum,

Is it permissible to teach Finance (this would include teaching about interest and how to use it for calculations)? Also, is it permissible to do academic research in Finance (research may be on bonds or other interest bearing instruments and even if it is not directly related to interest bearing instruments, using interest rate for comparisons or calculations may be required)? It may take some time but could you please give the reasoning behind it as well (i.e. why is it allowed or disallowed).

Thank you in advance.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

It is permissible to research and teach finance since you will not directly be involved in the sin. The classic scholars of Islam have given numerous examples of instances where a person is not responsible if he does not directly involves himself in the sin. For example, they mention that it is permissible to build a church, or carry/transport wine, since the labourer is getting paid for the action of building or carrying, and not for what the church and wine will be used for.

Likewise, it is also permitted to sell items which could be used in a permissible way and in an impermissible way, since the seller is not responsible for how the buyer will use the item.

In this case, you are merely researching, explanining and teaching how interest works. The acts of researching and teaching are permissible. Not all students in your lesson are guaranteed to engage in Haraam. Many students have different reasons for taking up this course. Hence, you are not responsible if the student ises the knowledge that you imparted to him to promote conventional finances.

You can also use your teaching as an opportunity to explain the disadvantages and evils of interest.

References

ولو استأجر الذمي مسلماً ليبني له بيعة أو كنيسة جاز، ويطيب له الأجر.  (المحيط البرهاني – 7/ 482)

قال: “ومن كسر لمسلم بربطا أو طبلا أو مزمارا أو دفا أو أراق له سكرا أو منصفا فهو ضامن، وبيع هذه الأشياء جائز” وهذا عند أبي حنيفة. وقال أبو يوسف ومحمد: لا يضمن ولا يجوز بيعها. وقيل الاختلاف في الدف والطبل الذي يضرب للهو. فأما طبل الغزاة والدف الذي يباح ضربه في العرس يضمن بالإتلاف من غير خلاف. وقيل الفتوى في الضمان على قولهما(الهداية – (524 / 6)

قال: ومن حمل لذمي خمرا، فإنه يطيب له الأجر عند أبي حنيفة – رَحِمَهُ اللَّهُ -، وقال أبو يوسف ومحمد -رحمهما الله-: يكره له ذلك، لأنه إعانة على المعصية، وقد صح أن النبي – عَلَيْهِ الصَّلَاةُ وَالسَّلَامُ -: {لعن في الخمر عشرا: حاملها، والمحمول إليه}….

وله: أن المعصية في شربها وهو فعل فاعل مختار، وليس الشرب من ضرورات الحمل ولا يقصد به. والحديث محمول على الحمل المقرون بقصد المعصية.  (البناية شرح الهداية – 12/ 222)

 (قوله وحمل خمر ذمي) قال الزيلعي: وهذا عنده وقالا هو مكروه ” لأنه – عليه الصلاة والسلام – «لعن في الخمر عشرة وعد منها حاملها» وله أن الإجارة على الحمل وهو ليس بمعصية، ولا سبب لها وإنما تحصل المعصية بفعل فاعل مختار، وليس الشرب من ضرورات الحمل، لأن حملها قد يكون للإراقة أو للتخليل، فصار كما إذا استأجره لعصر العنب أو قطعه والحديث محمول على الحمل المقرون بقصد المعصية اهـ (رد المحتار  – 394 / 6  )

Istihadah

Istihadah

19 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1114

1. I’m in istiahdah. I saw discoloured discharge. After I had relieved & cleaned myself, I was putting in a new kursuf and as I was putting it in it felt damp. I wiped with a tissue and I’m assuming it looked clear. When I was putting the kursuf in, I had reached in a little deeper than I think I usually do. So I’m not sure if this is old discharge which is connected to the discoloured discharge, or new discharge. As of now, I’m still using kursuf to be on the safe side. But I’m not sure.

2. During istihadah, after I get clear discharge, can I dismiss any yellow discharge and not have to clean it up off myself and my clothes. My normal discharge can vary between both clear and also yellow.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

If the discharge on the Kursuf was blood, and more than 15 days of purity has passed since your last period, and the blood lasted for more than three days, then that discharge will be Haidh. If any of these three conditions is not found (example you saw no blood thereafter or less than 3 days), the discharge will be Istihaadah.

Yellow blood seen during the clean period will be impure. You will have to purify the areas which it soils.

References

وفي الغياثية: الصحيح أن الصفرة حيض…و كان الشيخ ابو منصور الماتريدي رحمه الله مرة يقول في الصفرة: إذا رأتها ابرداء في زمان الحيض إنها حيض، و أما إذا رأتها في زمان الطهر و اتصل ذلك بزمان الحيض، فإنها لا تكون حيضا، ومرة يقول: إذا اعتادت المرأة أن تري أيام الطهر صفرة و أيام الحيض حمرة فحكم صفرتها يكون حكم الطهر حتي لو امتدت هي بها لم يحكم لها بالحيض في شيء في هذه الصفرة، و حكمها حكم الطهر علي قول أكثر المشايخ رحمهم الله (الفتاوى التاتارخانية – 474 / 1 )

وَلَوْ حَشَتْ الْمَرْأَةُ فَرْجَهَا بِقُطْنَةٍ فَإِنْ وَضَعَتْهَا فِي الْفَرْجِ الْخَارِجِ فَابْتَلَّ الْجَانِبُ الدَّاخِلُ مِنْ الْقُطْنَةِ كَانَ حَدَثًا، وَإِنْ لَمْ يَنْفُذْ إلَى الْجَانِبِ الْخَارِجِ لَا يَكُونُ حَدَثًا، لِأَنَّ الْفَرْجَ الْخَارِجَ مِنْهَا بِمَنْزِلَةِ الْأَلْيَتَيْنِ مِنْ الدُّبُرِ فَوُجِدَ الْخُرُوجُ، وَإِنْ وَضَعَتْهَا فِي الْفَرْجِ الدَّاخِلِ فَابْتَلَّ الْجَانِبُ الدَّاخِلُ مِنْ الْقُطْنَةِ لَمْ يَكُنْ حَدَثًا لِعَدَمِ الْخُرُوجِ، وَإِنْ تَعَدَّتْ الْبِلَّةُ إلَى الْجَانِبِ الْخَارِجِ فَإِنْ كَانَتْ الْقُطْنَةُ عَالِيَةً، أَوْ مُحَاذِيَةً لِجَانِبِ الْفَرْجِ كَانَ حَدَثًا لِوُجُودِ الْخُرُوجِ، وَإِنْ كَانَتْ مُتَسَفِّلَةً لَمْ يَكُنْ حَدَثًا لِعَدَمِ الْخُرُوجِ، وَهَذَا كُلُّهُ إذَا لَمْ تَسْقُطْ الْقُطْنَةُ فَإِنْ سَقَطَتْ الْقُطْنَةُ فَهُوَ حَدَثٌ، وَحَيْضٌ فِي الْمَرْأَةِ سَوَاءٌ ابْتَلَّ الْجَانِبُ الْخَارِجُ، أَوْ الدَّاخِلُ لِوُجُودِ الْخُرُوجِ   (بدائع الصنائع – 1/ 26)

وَأَمَّا رُطُوبَةُ الْفَرْجِ فَهِيَ طَاهِرَةٌ عِنْدَ أَبِي حَنِيفَةَ كَسَائِرِ رُطُوبَاتِ الْبَدَنِ وَعِنْدَهُمَا نَجِسَةٌ؛ لِأَنَّهَا مُتَوَلِّدَةٌ فِي مَحَلِّ النَّجَاسَةِ (الجوهرة النيرة – 1/ 38)

Confusion about poor recitation and Fatwaa 1048

Confusion about poor recitation and Fatwaa 1048

18 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1100

Peace be with you,

Firstly, I would like to express my gratitude for your answer to my previous question as praying has become much easier for me. But still, there are some uncertainties I hope you could clarify with regards to the extent of tolerance for errors of pronounciation.

If I may, I would like to refer you to an answer on islamqa.info (146489: Ruling on leading of the prayer by one who cannot recite al-Faatihah well) which I found particularly concerning, because it presented some criteria for the excuse to take hold which brings me to my first point.

1.) Quoting from that answer it says (note the highlighted phrases):
“With regard to the validity of prayer offered behind one who cannot recite well […] when he is [able to correct] this mistake, [but he is careless], then his prayer is not valid and prayer offered behind him is not valid either.”
This worries me for two reasons:
a) I can actually correct a mistake by simply repeating the word once, or multiple times until it is correct. Does this mean that I actually have to correct my mistakes? Then how many attempts should I give myself before moving on? Sometimes I repeat an Ayah or a part of it and make a different or sometimes worse mistake than the first time so it gets complicated.
b) What could be meant here by “careless”. If I am excused for my poor pronounciation, does that mean that I still have to remain vigilant in order to prevent mistakes? Unfortunately, sometimes I am taken by a lapse of concentration which causes a mistake which could have been prevented had I been more careful. Is such a mistake not tolerated because it was out of carelessness? Similarly, when praying in the proximity of other people I try to pray as quietly as possible. Other people seem to be able to do this and pray without being heard, but when I wish to reduce the volume, I have tu reduce the airflow which drastically increases the probability of mistakes. Again, are additional mistakes caused by praying very quietly overlooked?

2.) I live in a country where many imams are not native Arabs, thus their pronounciation of the Quran may be somewhat lacking. I do not know whether they are able to correct their mistakes or whether they even recognise the need to do so. If for instance a non-Arab imam pronounced the Fatiha correctly in the first Rak’ah and made a mistake in the second, does that mean that he was careless or is it excused even though he did it right the first time? Should I only go to mosques where I know are Arab imams?

My apologies, if my repeated questioning have become inconvenient.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

1) We have answered question 1048 for your specific case, in light of the detailed question which you have submitted. Thus, in your case based on all that you explained, you should only endeavour to correct a word once if its in Surah al-Fatiha, or the first three verses thereafter. And if you have recited more than the necessary recitation, then you should go into Ruku’.

2) If the Masjid where the Imam recites correctly is not far or difficult to reach, then its best to perform Salah there.

If it is difficult to go to such Masjids, and the Imams at the Masjids close to you do not recite correctly, then as long as the meaning does not change, you should not concern yourself with the Imams recitation. The onus will be on him to recite correctly, and on the committee who hired such an Imam.  You should only be repeat your prayer if the meaning changes drastically.

Rulling of shariah on money as gift

Rulling of shariah on money as gift

18 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1106

Assalam o alikum ,
My question is someone has given some money to me as gift for my personal usage such person is Hindu …..
I wanted to know tht money can I use for religious purposes of the following
1) perform umrah or Hajj
2) give sadqa
3) help poor for the purpose of sawab
4) for any other religious affairs .
Kindly reply each of the above concerns
I listen that the person is not Muslim so his or her earnings cannot be use in religious purposes with the intention to earn sawab .but that money I owning as my property.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wabarakàtuhu,

It is permissible to accept gifts from non Muslims. Once you take possession of the gift, you become the owner of that money. You may use that wealth for in any religious way; whether it is for Haj ir Umrah, Sadaqah and helping the poor, or for any other religious purpose.

Kosher Meat

Kosher Meat

18 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1102

Salam alaykum wrb
90% halal meat in USA is stunned. The following comes from islamqa: (Since the act of stunning renders the animal doubtful, one must avoid consuming the meat of animals that are stunned. However, if it is determined in a particular animal that it did not die prior to being slaughtered, then it would be Halal. This of course, is very difficult to determine whilst buying from meat shops, thus one should avoid it totally. ) however , Kosher strictly forbids stunning. Kosher is not stunned even in USA. Therefore in USA can one conclude it is better to buy kosher ?

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

Whilst there are numerous similarities between Halal and Kosher, there are some major differences which makes it impermissible for Muslims to eat Kosher. Examples of theses differences are:

-According to Muslims, one must take the name of Allah on every animal that one slaughters. However, Jews believe that this is not necessary.

-For Muslims, all intoxicants are Haram. Jews permit alcohol and wine.

-Gelatin is regarded as Kosher by most Jews irrespective of its source of origin. Muslims differ with this.

These are major differences, and it affects the permissibilty of the meat for Muslims.

Thus, even though Kosher is not stunned, it will still not be permissible to buy Kosher meat.

Universal Credit

Universal Credit

17 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1099

In the UK theres this program which allows its unemployed citizens to gain government benefits like money if they actively job search for 35 hrs a week. 28 hrs a week for some who have a valid reason. if you dont do your weekly 35 hrs job search u could risk getting penalised. i thi k either u lose some of ur benefits or all. a few people of course have brought up how ridiculous this is. personally, i’ve only been able to complete almost three hrs, in which consisted of refurbishing my cv twice, beginning a cover letter, looking up jobs and researching their company. these benefits im getting help my family who struggle with money. im afraid of falling short of my committments. some people recommend applying for jobs u know u’ll never get, but because I’m Muslim, morally it feels wrong to do so. do you think i can fall short of my committments(not do full 28 hrs a week) and not tell my work advisors? and can i apply for jobs i dont really want to/cant do? or is it all haram?

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

Since it is clearly stated that you are being paid for the time, which is the 35 hours, you will have to complete the full 35 hours to be compensated. The fact that they will penalise you for not completing the full time shows that it is not negotiable.

Although it may seem ridiculous, one is not forced to take the offer. If a person wants the benefits, he will have to fulfill the conditions and terms.

As Muslims, we display utmost honesty and transparency in our dealings. Our main concern is that all our earnings should be Halal and Tayyib (pure). Thus, if you are able to  complete the requirements of this offer, you may persue it further. And if not, then fear Allah and seek other income, having firm conviction that Allah will give you better (because of sacrificing for Him), as explained in the following verse:

و من يتق الله يجعله مخرجا oويرزقه من حيث لا يحتسب (سورة الطلاق – اية 2-3)

“And the one who fears Allah, Allah will create for him an exit. And Allah will sustain him from where he could not imagine.” (Surah Talaq: 2-3)

 

References

“وتعدي الأجير هو أن يعمل عملا أو يتحرك حركة مخالفين لأمر  الآجر صراحة كان أو دلالة” المراد بالعمل المخالف لأمر الآجر دلالة أن يعمل الأجير في المستأجر فيه عملا لا يرضى به المالك لما في الفتاوى الأنقروية نقلا عن العتابية والمتعدي هو الذي بفعل بالوديعة لا يرضى به المودع ولأن كل عمل لم يكن مأذونا فيه إذا كان من شأنه ن لا يرضى به المالك يكون منهيا عنه دلالة فدخل في العمل المخالف لأمر الآجر دلالة ما لو أنزى الراعي بعض الدواب على بعض بلا إذن المالك فإنه لو عطب منها شيء بسبب ذلك يضمن لتعديه لأن الإنزاء لما كان غير مأذون فيه وهو مما لا يرضى به المالك صار كأنه منهي عنه فبالمخالفة يكون متعديا فيضمن (شرح مجلة الأحكام للأتاسي – 711/1)

اجیر کا موجر کو دھوکہ دے کر زیادہ روپیہ وصول کرنا؟

یہ عقد اجارہ ہے، اور اجیر کي خاص صفت پر اجرت زیادہ دینے پر گورمنٹ کي رضامندي ہے جب وہ صفت اجیر میں نہیں تو وہ زیادہ اجرت خداع وفریب سے کرائي گئي ہے لہذا یہ جائز نہیں اور جس قدر دھوکہ سے ترقي کي ہے اس قدر روپیہ خبیث ہے
(امداد الفتاوی – 388/3)

ایام غیر حاضری کی اجرت
مدارس کے اساتذہ اور اںمہ مسجد جن دنوں میں غیر حاضر رہے ان دنوں کی اجرت کے مستحق ہے یا نہیں؟
اس میں مدارس کے عرف پر عمل ہوگا جتنی غیر حاضریاں عرفا معفو عنہ سمجھی جاتی ہے انکی اجرت کا مستحق ہوگا زیادہ کا نہیں (احسن الفتاوی – 7 / 283)

follow up to Ref-No#: 1079

follow up to Ref-No#: 1079

17 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1097

With reference to my earlier question 1079, one solution given is that sign the rental contract first, and then sales contract, but how can i sign the rental contract and lease to someone , when i do not own that asset ?. Isnt the proper way to buy first and then rent out.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

The contract you sign on the rental is subjective; meaning IF you buy the property the property, you will lease it out. It is not a present transaction, but rather a  promise for the future. Thus, the rental agreement is suspended on the purchase of the property. No sale is taking place before ownership, but rather just a commitment.

PARENTS WILL

PARENTS WILL

17 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1081

My grand father (maternal) has 3 daughters and 1 son, he recently received funds from the sold property of his own father, most of his brothers have already distributed these funds among his daughters and sons, but my grand father claim is that he will not distribute this during his life and only be known by his will after his death, further his intention is that he will only distribute his self owned property and property from his ancestors among only his 1 son and 1 daughters whereas his claim is that my mother and other aunt are self sufficient so he will ignore them.

Appreciate your advise about this matter, is he correct that property will can only be declared after his death ? and can he ignore my mother and another aunt with his claim that since they are self sufficient he will not give anything from his self owned and ancestors earned property ?

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

A person only owns his wealth until the time of his death. As soon as he passes away, he looses ownership of all his assets; and his estate has to be distributed according to what Allah Ta’ala has ordained. Allah Ta’ala has explained how wealth should be distributed after a person passes away, and no one has a right to amend these shares or deprive anyone of their rights.

Even if a heir is rich or self sufficient, a deceased has no authority to deprive them of their alloted shares. Hence, even if your grandfather states in his will that his two daughters (your mom and aunt) should not get anything, that clause will be null and your mom and aunt will still be deserving of their shares.

Furhermore, a person cannot make a Wassiyyah (bequest) for an heir who has been stipulated in Shariah. Thus, if your dad makes a bequest for his one son and daughter to get more, that clause will not be valid.

Even if your grandfather decides to distribute his wealth whilst he is alive; he will have to maintain equality between his children.

References

تِلْكَ حُدُودُ اللَّهِ ۚ وَمَن يُطِعِ اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ يُدْخِلْهُ جَنَّاتٍ تَجْرِي مِن تَحْتِهَا الْأَنْهَارُ خَالِدِينَ فِيهَا ۚ وَذَٰلِكَ الْفَوْزُ الْعَظِيمُ ؛ وَمَن يَعْصِ اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ وَيَتَعَدَّ حُدُودَهُ يُدْخِلْهُ نَارًا خَالِدًا فِيهَا وَلَهُ عَذَابٌ مُّهِينٌ (سورة النساء 13 – 14)

(ولا تجوز الوصية لوارث) لقوله صلى الله عليه وسلم: “إن الله قد أعطى كل ذي حق حقه؛ فلا وصية لوارث”.

ويعتبر كونه وارثاً عند الموت لا عند الوصية: فمن كان وارثاً عند الوصية غير وارث عند الموت صحت له الوصية، وإن كان بالعكس لم تصح (اللباب في شرح الكتاب – 367/ 5)

م: (ولأنه) ش: أي ولأن الزائد على الثلث م: (حق الورثة، وهذا) ش: توضيح لما قبله م: (لأنه انعقد سبب الزوال إليهم) ش: أي انعقد سبب زوال الملك عنه إلى الورثة؛ لأن المرض سبب الموت   (البناية شرح الهداية – 13/ 391)

Movies/Video Games

Movies/Video Games

16 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1083

Asalamualaikum

I’m a young female who enjoys watching romance shows and movies/video games. I always cover the parts in which people kiss. Ever since I began practicing it’s been hard for me to find holistic activities for entertainment that aren’t against Islamic guidelines. I don’t go to the cinema anymore. These types movies/shows make me quite happy. I think they’re a nice past time for me. Is this forbidden? Despite the efforts I make to conceal any overly romantic parts? They don’t push me to pursue forniciation or masturbation, they just give me a nice feeling in my heart.

I asked another Shaykh this question and he said he didn’t know. So I’m assuming it’s a confusing topic.

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuhu,

There are numerous wrongs when watching movies. Even if you are really successful the parts where the actors kiss; there are still various other sins which takes when watching these shows and movies; for example:

·        Looking at people of the opposite gender without dire necessity and in a way prohibited by Islam. The Quran also commands females to lower their gazes, and this is not feasible in the case of TV and movies.

·        Listening to music. Every program on the TV will have some music, and this causes hypocrisy to grow in ones heart.

·        Displaying pictures in the house when the screen is switched on. According to the hadith, pictures prevent angels of mercy from entering the house. If there are no angels of mercy in the house, the house will be full of devils.

·        Watching and listening to immoral people, thereby, creating admiration for them and their ways. The hadith tells us that a person in the life hereafter will be with the ones he loves and admires.

·        Wasting time. Time is very precious according to Islam and it is amongst the first things a person will be questioned about on the day of judgement.

Besides all the above, by watching TV shows, one is putting himself in a state of heedlessness. Often it is because of this heedlessness that many prayers are missed.

As for entertaining yourself, we should realise that as Muslims we have a greater purpose in life. We were created to prepare for the hereafter.  Every second of ours is valuable, and we will have to give account of how we spentevery moment.

By sacrificing the ‘entertainment’ of this world, we can invest our resources to attain the entertainment if the hereafter. For us, the world is the place to prepare for the hereafter, and not a place of enjoyment.

The happiness you are getting from watching movies is artificial. It is like a pain killer.

Recite more Quran in your free time, and increase in your rememberance of Allah. This will bring true happiness and pleasure.

You may also engage in recreation which has benefit. For example, keeping within the confines of Hijaab, you may go for swimming. Reading beneficial books is also recommended.

In short, rather use your free time to prepare for the hereafter, or do something which will benefit you.

 

Divorce

Divorce

15 Oct 2018 Ref-No#: 1084

Aoa. I wanted to ask if a girl and guy are in a secret nikkah because girl was too dumb back then. And later the girl realized that guy is not good for her n she won’t ever stay happy with him plus her family would never accept him so she asked for divorce. He keeps asking her to talk to her family firstly she kept saying i can’t I know they would never accept u. But on much forcing I lied to him that i talked to my mom n she said no. It’s never happening because and i can’t force my family so please divorce me. He divorced me 3 times saying ‘i divorce u’. Is the divorce valid? Despite of the fact that I lied to him once?
Later I asked him then he said he divorced because I asked for it

Answer

Wa’alaykum as Salam wa rahmatullahi wabarakatuhu,

Even though your husband based the divorces on the incorrect information which you gave to him, all the three Talaaqs issued by your husband will be valid. You are now out of his wedlock, and your Iddah has commenced when he uttered those words.

References

  الطَّلاَقُ مَرَّتَانِ فَإِمْسَاكٌ بِمَعْرُوفٍ أَوْ تَسْريح بِإِحْسَانٍ وَلاَ يَحِلُّ لَكُمْ أَن تَأْخُذُواْ مِمَّا آتَيْتُمُوهُنَّ شَيْئًا إِلاَّ أَن يَخَافَا أَلاَّ يُقِيمَا حُدُودَ اللَّهِ فَإِنْ خِفْتُمْ أَلاَّ يُقِيمَا حُدُودَ اللَّهِ فَلاَ جُنَاحَ عَلَيْهِمَا فِيمَا افْتَدَتْ بِهِ تِلْكَ حُدُودُ اللَّهِ فَلاَ تَعْتَدُوهَا وَمَن يَتَعَدَّ حُدُودَ اللَّهِ فَأُوْلَئِكَ هُمُ الظَّالِمُونَ (البقرة 229) 

وإذا قال لها: أنت طالق، فقوله لها: أنت طالق، يقع بالكلمًة بعينها الطلاق سواء البتة لا يحتاج فيها إلى نية.
(الأصل للشيباني – 4/ 457)